Question about violence in the Old Testament (Forum snippet)

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This is my first post on Monachos. I guess this is where I should ask the harder and deeper questions that I have, regarding Eastern theology and liturgy.

I would like to know what the Greek and Syrian Fathers had to say regarding violence in the Old Testament, especially with regards to the herem in Deuteronomy and to other apparent divine commands to massacre and slaughter entire nations and peoples.

I've read in the course of my research that the literal reading of these commands as having been actual, literal commands of God to kill entire peoples, was actually an innovation on the part of St. Augustine. According to the same thesis, the Greek and early Latin Fathers normally read these "violent commands" as hyperbole and allegory. Is this true?

Welcome to Monachos.

I am sure that the great majority of Church Fathers up to our own time would have taken these commands as representing something God literally asked of the people of Israel & something they literally did. This also would have been given a symbolic interpretation but without denying the literal.

I suppose that the last point gives a better understanding of what was behind this Patristic acceptance. For the Fathers nothing in Scripture stands 'as is' without referring to a deeper reality.

Thus the OT accounts for the Fathers are not just accounts of slaughter. Rather they are acts which God asks of His people as signs of faithfulness. If faithfulness was not their motivation- as it frequently was not- if it was simply blood-thirstyness or desire for land or power- then God's accusation against His people was always swift to come.

I am sure that this can still lead to important moral questions. But the main point to keep in mind is that for the Fathers such questions always had to be addressed within the actual context in which the people of Israel found themselves.

In any case, as the OT always implies- faithfulness does not rule out moral ambiguity. Indeed the suggestion is just the opposite that to keep to our own 'moral high ground' could be a sign of deep faithlessness towards God. As for example if Abraham had refused to offer his son for such a reason.

Why this is so is I think the main question to look at.

In Christ- Fr Raphael         


source:

http://www.monachos.net/conversation/topic/2587-the-fathers-on-violence-in-the-old-testament/